Upon first glance, this poem is a love letter from a wife to a husband. It does very well in this regard, giving traditional examples of how profound their love is. The last line is lovely: “That when we live no more, we may live ever” (12), suggesting their love is eternal. With all that being said, I found myself stumped with the line “Nor ought but love from thee give recompense” (8). I have two theories to interpret this, and I would be curious to know if anyone else felt similarly. It seems as if the wife feels guilty as she feels deeply loved by her ‘dear and loving husband’ that she could not reciprocate that love. This could be read as sweet and endearing, as she can only aspire to return her love, but I wonder if there is also a hint of something more promiscuous. Does the husband love her even though the wife may have done something to inhibit that love, such as an affair? In this sense, while the wife still deeply loves the husband, she feels she cannot ‘recompense’ due to that stain on their marriage. If this is a plausible interpretation, it gives the poem a far more somber tone, depicting the wife’s internal strife. She wants to love her husband the same way he loves her, but she feels she can’t make the mistakes she’s made. 

I would be inquisitive if anybody else could get on board with this theory or tell me I am wrong and just reading too deeply into nothing.